ANATOMY & HISTOLOGY
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180. The spinal cord in an adult normally ends at what level?
A. Upper border of the 1st lumbar vertebra
B. Lower border of 4th lumbar vertebra
C. Lower border of 2nd sacral vertebra
...D. Intervertebral disc between 1st and 2nd lumbar vertebrae
179. The internal vertebral venous plexus will MOST likely lie in which of the following spaces?
A. Subdural
B. Epidural
C. Subarachnoid
...D. Perineuronal
178. Occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery will MOST likely produce which of the following?
A. Visual defect
B. Hearing defect
C. Ataxia
...D. Paralysis of lateral rectus muscle
177. Which of the following veins will NOT drain into the great cerebral vein?
A. Basal
B. Septal
C. Occipital
...D. Internal cerebral
176. If both the foramen of Magendie and Luscha are blocked, it will MOST likely cause dilatation of which of the following?
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Lateral ventricles
C. Fourth ventricle
...D. All the ventricles
175. The choroid plexus consist of which of the following?
A. Blood vessels
B. Blood vessels + pia mater
C. Blood vessels + pia mater + ependyma
...D. Blood vessels + pia mater + ependyma + dura mater
174. The interpeduncular cistern will MOST likely lodge which of the following?
A. Cerebral peduncles
B. Circulus arteriosus
C. Mamillary bodies
...D. A & B only
173. The grooves found in the internal surface of the skull are MOST likely produced by which of the following?
A. Meningeal arteries
B. Meningeal veins
C. Cephalic vein
...D. Cephalic artery
172. If there is an enlargement of the hypophysis, it will MOST likely press on which of the following structures?
A. Optic chiasma
B. Optic chiasma and optic tract
C. Olfactory bulb
...D. Optic chiasma and optic bulb
171. Which of the following BEST describes the paranasal sinuses?
A. Blood sinuses at the side of the nose
B. Air sinuses in relation to the nose
C. Connections between the nasal cavity and anterior cranial fossa
...D. Remnants of the Rathke's pouch
170. Which of the following sinuses is NOT related to tentorium cerebelli?
A. Transverse
B. Superior petrosal
C. Inferior petrosal
...D. Occipital sinus
169. Which of the following BEST describes the diaphragma sellae?
A. A fold of dura mater on the posterior cranial fossa
B. A fold of dura mater over hypophyseal fossa
C. A cavity that lodges the hypophysis cerebri
...D. A fold of dura mater separating the hypophysis from the middle ear cavity
168. The crista galli is a crest on which of the following bones?
A. Sphenoid
B. Ethmoid
C. Frontal
...D. Inner surface of occipital
167. The superior sagittal sinus drains directly into which of the following?
A. Foramen cecum
B. Inferior sagittal sinus
C. Cavernous sinus
...D. Transverse sinus
166. White matter does NOT contain:
A. Blood vessels
B. Neurons
C. Nerve fibers
...D. Myelin sheath
165. Which of the following is the afferent part of a neuron?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Perikaryon
...D. Synaptic vesicle
164. Which of the following cells do NOT develop from the neuroectoderm?
A. Neurons
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendroglia
...D. Astroglia
163. Which layer will MOST likely give rise to the anterior horn of the spnal cord?
A. Alar lamina
B. Basal lamina
C. Marginal Lamina
...D. A & B only
162. Nerve cells develop from:
A. Neural crest
B. Neural crest and germinal ependymal cells
C. Mantle layer cells
...D. Migrating cells from somites
161. Which of the following muscles is NOT a lateral rotator of the hip joint?
A. Piriformis
B. Quadratus femoris
C. Superior gamellus
...D. Tensor fascia lata
160. Gray matter of the spinal cord does NOT contain:
A. Neurons
B. Oligodendroglia
C. Ependymal
...D. Blood vessels
159. Which of the following is NOT a branch of the femoral nerve?
A. Anterior medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh
B. Anterior lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
C. Femoral branch of the genito-femoral nerve
...D. Saphenous nerve
158. Which of the following structures will NOT cross the posterior surface of the lower end of tibia?
A. Flexor hallucis longus
B. Peroneus tertius
C. Tibialis posterior
...D. Posterior tibial artery
157. The tibialis posterior muscle will MOST unlikely insert into which of the following bones?
A. Navicular
B. Cuboid
C. Lateral cuneiform
...D. First metatarsal
156. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the gracilis muscle?
A. Adductor of hip joint
B. Lateral rotator of hip joint
C. Medial rotator of hip joint
...D. Supplied by obturator nerve
155. Which of the following muscles is NOT an abductor of the hip joint?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus maximus
C. Gluteus minimus
...D. Tensor fascia lata
154. Which of the following is NOT a muscle of the first layer of the sole of the foot?
A. Abductor hallucis
B. Abductor digiti minimi
C. Flexor digitorum quadratus
...D. Flexor digitorum brevis
153. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the saphenous opening?
A. Is an opening in the fascia lata
B. Lies below and lateral to pubic tubercle
C. Its medial margin is well defined
...D. Femoral hernia makes way through it
152. Which of the following structures is NOT drained by the superficial inguinal lymph glands?
A. Lower limb & gluteal region
B. Perineum
C. External genital organs
...D. Upper anterior abdominal wall
151. Which of the following will NOT pierce the cribriform fascia?
A. Great saphenous vein
B. Lymphatics
C. Deep external pudendal artery
...D. Superficial circumflex iliac artery
150. Which of the following is the LAST branch of the femoral artery?
A. Profundus femoris
B. Medial circumflex femoral
C. Muscular
...D. Descending genicular
The branches of femoral arteries are (from proximal to distal) the superficial and deep external pudendal, superficial epigastric, superficial circumflex iliac, profunda femoris and descending genicular (saphenous) arteries. So answer is Letter D. But the board answer is C, muscular.
149. The talus will MOST unlikely articulate with which of the following?
A. Calcaneus
B. Cuboid
C. Navicular
...D. Tibia
148. The ossification centers for the lower end of the fibula appears at approximately what age?
A. 8th week AOG
B. One year
C. Three years
...D. Five years
147. The median crest of the fibula is related to which of the following arteries?
A. Posterior tibial
B. Anterior tibial
C. Peroneal
...D. Popliteal
146. The superficial external pudendal vein will drain into which of the following veins?
A. Saphenous
B. Femoral
C. External iliac
...D. Inferior gluteal
145. Which of the following is the longest muscle in the body?
A. Gracilis
B. Sartorius
C. Adductor longus
...D. Rectus femoris
144. The medial boundary of the femoral triangle is formed by which of the following?
A. Medial border of the adductor longus
B. Ilipsoas
C. Pectineus
...D. Lateral border of adductor longus
143. Which of the following structures will MOST likely not be found in the adductor canal?
A. Femoral nerve
B. Femoral artery
C. Femoral vein
...D. Nerve to vastus medialis
142. Which of the following is the strongest ligament of the lower limb?
A. Pubofemoral ligament
B. Lateral ligament of the ankle joint
C. Iliofemoral ligament
...D. Deltoid or medial ligament of the ankle joint
141. The arches of the foot are maintained by:
A. Intrinsic muscles of the foot
B. Ligaments of the foot
C. Tibialis posterior & peroneus longus muscles
...D. All of the above
140. Inversion movement will MOST likely take place at which joint?
A. Ankle
B. Knee
C. Hip
...D. Talo-calcaneo-navicular
139. The saphenous nerve is a branch of which of the following nerves?
A. Obturator
B. Sciatic
C. Femoral
...D. Hypogastric
138. Which of the following BEST describes the adductor longus muscle?
A. Extensor of knee
B. Composite muscle
C. Belongs to quadriceps femoris
...D. Abductor of hip
137. Which of the following BEST describes the tensor fascia lata muscle?
A. An extensor of hip joint
B. An extensor of knee joint
C. An extensor of both hip & knee joints
...D. An extensor of ankle joint
136. Which of the following BEST describes the popliteal artery?
A. A branch of external iliac artery
B. Is a continuation of the femoral artery in the thigh
C. Is a branch of profunda femoris artery
...D. Divides into 2 terminal branches at the distal border of popliteus muscle
135. Which of the following BEST describes the obturator nerve?
A. Is formed by anterior divisions of anterior primary rami L2, L3, L4 spinal nerves
B. Supplies the extensors of the hip joint
C. Is a branch of the sciatic nerve
...D. Supplies the hip joint
134. Which of the following BEST describes the short saphenous vein?
A. Joins the great saphenous vein in the femoral triangle
B. Joins the popliteal vein
C. Joins the femoral vein
...D. Is formed from the lateral end of dorsal venous arch
133. Which of the following BEST describes the vastus medialis muscle?
A. Reinforces the lateral ligament of the knee joint
B. Checks the lateral displacement of the patella
C. Is supplied by the obturator nerve
...D. Forms the lateral wall of the adductor canal
132. Which of the following BEST describes the adductor magnus muscle?
A. Medial rotator of hip joint
B. Adductor of hip joint
C. Extensor of knee joint
...D. Lateral rotator of hip joint
132. Which of the following BEST describes the adductor magnus muscle?
A. Medial rotator of hip joint
B. Adductor of hip joint
C. Extensor of knee joint
...D. Lateral rotator of hip joint
131. Which of the following are fiber components of the femoral nerve?
A. Motor nerves to joints
B. Sensory fibers to skin
C. Motor fibers to muscles
...D. Articular fibers to joints
130. The lumbrical muscles will MOST likely act on which of the following joints?
A. Tarsometatarsal
B. Interphalangeal
C. Ankle
...D. Metatarsophalangeal
129. Following a vehicular accident, a patient sustains a complete section of the median nerve at the level of the wrist. Which of the following is expected to happen?
A. Decrease power of flexion
B. Wasting of the thenar eminence
C. Paralysis of the hyothenar musccles
...D. Loss of sensation on the lateral three digits
128. Which of the following difficulties would be expected in a pure radial nerve lesion?
A. Weakened grasp
B. Wrist drop
C. Weakened pinch
...D. All of the above
127. A fracture of the pisiform bone is MOST likely to involve which of the following nerves?
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Medial
...D. Posterior interosseous
126. Which of the following is a MOST likely action of the palmar interosseus muscles
A. Abduction of the fingers
B. Adduction of the fingers
C. Flexion of the metacarpophalangeal joints
...D. Extension of the interphalangeal joints
125. The dorsum of the hand is MOST likely supplied by which of the following nerves?
A. Radial
B. Ulnar
C. Median
...D. All of the above
124. Which of the following structures will MOST likely lie in the spiral groove?
A. Ulnar nerve and superior ulnar collateral artery
B. Median nerve and brachial artery
C. Radial nerve and profundus brachial artery
...D. Radial nerve and radial artery
123. Which of the following muscles will NOT flex the shoulder joint?
A. Deltoid
B. Pectoralis major
C. Teres major
...D. Coracobrachialis
122. What is the nerve supply of the muscles of the flexor compartment of the arm?
A. Axillary nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Musculocutaneous nerve
...D. Radial nerve
121. The anastomosis of arteries around the scapula is accomplished primarily by:
A. First part of the subclavian
B. Second part of the axillary
C. Third part of the axillary
...D. A & C only
120. The axillary nerve will MOST likely supply which of the following muscles?
A. Teres major
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Deltoid
...D. Supraspinatus
119. Which of the following structures will MOST likely pass through the quadrangular space?
A. Axillary nerve
B. Posterior humeral circumflex artery
C. Radial nerve
...D. Anterior humeral circumflex artery
118. Which of the following will MOST likely happen if the circumflex (axillary) nerve is totally cut?
A. Total loss of abduction of the forearm
B. Wrist drop
C. Claw hand
...D. Sensory loss over an area in the deltoid region of the shoulder
117. The musculocutaneous nerve ends as the:
A. Posterior cutaneous nerve of the forearm
B. Lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm
C. Medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm
...D. Upper lateral cutaneous nerve
116. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the median nerve as it passes through the arm?
A. Brachialis
B. Coracobrachialis
C. Brachioradialis
...D. Pronator teres
116. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the median nerve as it passes through the arm?
A. Brachialis
B. Coracobrachialis
C. Brachioradialis
...D. Pronator teres
116. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the median nerve as it passes through the arm?
A. Brachialis
B. Coracobrachialis
C. Brachioradialis
...D. Pronator teres
113. The 2nd sacral vertebral spinous process corresponds to the level of the:
A. Iliac crest
B. Lower part of 12th rib
C. Posterior inferior iliac spine
...D. Middle portion of sacro-iliac joint
112. What is the action of the latissimus dorsi on the arm?
A. Abduction, lateral rotation, & extension
B. Adduction, lateral rotation, & extension
C. Abduction, lateral rotation & flexion
...D. Adduction, medial rotation, & extension
111. The deep branch of the transverse cervical artery runs:
A. Superficial to levator scapulae, deep to trapezius & rhomboids
B. Superficial to levator scapulae & rhomboids, but deep to trapezius
C. Superficial to levator scapulae, rhomboids, & trapezius
...D. Deep to levator scapulae & trapezius, but superficial to rhomboids
110. The tendon often present and very prominent at the wrist on flexing the fingers against resistance is:
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris
B. Flexor digitorum superficialis
C. Palmaris longus
...D. Flexor carpi radialis
109. At the proximal ulnar aspect of the hand, what is the first carpal bone that is felt?
A. Trapezium
B. Lunate
C. Scaphoid
...D. Pisiform
108. What is the motor innervation of flexor digitorum superficialis?
A. Ulnar nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Anterior interosseous nerve
...D. Radial nerve
107. The first palmar interosseous muscle originates from:
A. Medial & anterior surfaces of the index finger
B. Medial & anterior surfaces of the thumb
C. Radial & anterior surfaces of the index finger
...D. Adjacent sides of the first & second metacarpals
106. What is the cutaneous nerve supply to the dorsum of the distal phalanx of the middle finger?
A. Ulnar digital nerves
B. Palmar cutaneous nerve of ulnar
C. Palmar cutaneous nerve of median
...D. Digital nerves of median
105. If the cervical plexus sustains an injury at the 5th & 6th roots, which of the following muscles will be paralyzed?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Brachialis
C. Deltoid
D. All of the above
104. Which of the following statements is MOST inaccurate about the lumbricals?
A. Four in number
B. The lateral two are innervated by the median nerve
C. Are adductors of the fingers
...D. Originate from the radial side of flexor digitorum profundus
103. Which of the following structures will NOT pass above the flexor retinaculum?
A. Ulnar vessels
B. Ulnar nerve, superficial branch
C. Palmaris longus
...D. Radial artery
102. Deep group muscles of the flexor compartment of the forearm will MOST likely not include which of the following?
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Pronator teres
C. Flexor pollicis longus
...D. Pronator quadratus
101. Which of the following will MOST unlikely be contained in the cubital fossa?
A. Anterior ulnar recurrent artery
B. Tendon of Biceps brachii
C. Median cutaneous nerve of forearm
...D. Median cubital vein
100. The lateral cord of the brachial plexus will NOT give rise to:
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Lateral pectoral nerve
C. Musculocutaneous nerve
...D. Lateral root of the median nerve
99. Which of the following statements is MOST inaccurate regarding the axillary artery?
A. Is a continuation of the subclavian artery
B. Starts at the outer border of the first rib
C. Lies medial to axillary vein
...D. Continues as brachial artery at the lower border of teres major
98. Which of the following statements is NOT true about subscapular bursa?
A. Is continuous with the synovial membrane of the shoulder joint
B. Extends laterally between subscapularis & medial part of the capsule
C. Lies in front of the neck of the scapula & root of coracoid... process
D. Is not continuous with the synovial membrane of shoulder joint
97. Which of the following groups of lymph nodes will MOST unlikely drain the infero-medial quadrant of the mammary gland?
A. Internal mammary of same side
B. Internal mammary of opposite side
C. Pectoral group
...D. Rectus sheath
96. Which of the following will MOST unlikely pierce the clavipectoral fascia?
A. Cephalic vein
B. Basilic vein
C. Thoracoacromial artery
...D. Lateral pectoral nerve
95. What type of joint is the middle radio-ulnar joint?
A. Synovial
B. Fibrous
C. Primary cartilagenous
...D. Secondary cartilagenous
93. The nerve that is MOST accurately related to the surgical neck of the humerus is:
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Axillary
...D. Median
94. The lunate bone is directly related to which of the following nerves?
A. Ulnar
B. Median
C. Radial
...D. None of the above
92. Paralysis of which of the following muscles will MOST likely cause winging of the scapula?
A. Serratus anterior
B. Latissimus dorsi
C. Deltoid
...D. Teres major
91. The pisiform will MOST accurately articulate with:
A. Capitate
B. Hamate
C. Trapezium
...D. Triquetral
90. Fracture of the clavicle MOST commonly occurs:
A. At the lateral one-third to medial two-third
B. At the medial one-third to lateral two-third
C. In the middle
...D. At the sternal end
89. Which of the following muscles is considered the chief supinator of the forearm?
A. Supinator
B. Brachioradialis
C. Biceps brachii
...D. Anconeus
88. The triceps is MOST accurately innervated by which nerve?
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Musculocutaneous
...D. Axillary
87. The trigone of the bladder is embryonically derived in part from the:
A. Urogenital sinus
B. Mesonephric ducts
C. Sinovaginal bulb
...D. Urachus
86. Which of the following structures is derived from the diverticuli of endoderm?
A. Liver
B. Thymus
C. Pancreas
...D. A & C only
85. Which of the following is of ectodermal origin?
A. Myelin sheath
B. Sweat gland
C. Myoepithelial cell
...D. All of the above
84. The epithelial lining of the pharynx is derived from:
A. Neural plate
B. Ectoderm
C. Entoderm
...D. Somatic mesoderm
83. Which of the following structures is MOST essential for the limbic system to appropriately direct the expression of emotional behavior?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Neocortex
C. Thalamus
...D. Basal ganglia
82 The anterior spinal artery arises from which of the following arteries?
A. Vertebral
B. Anterior inferior cerebellar
C. Basilar
...D. Posterior inferior cerebellar
81. In which of the following structures is Wernicke's speech MAINLY found?
A. Middle temporal gyrus
B. Parietotemporal region
C. Inferior frontal gyrus
...D. Precentral gyrus
80. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the celiac plexus?
A. Contains preganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Contains no parasympathetic fibers
C. Removal interferes with ejaculation
...D. Lies in front of the body of the 4th lumbar vertebra
79. A lesion in which of the following structures will MOST likely cause a quadrantic visual field defect?
A. Optic nerve
B. Lateral part of optic chiasma
C. Optic tract
...D. Lateral geniculate body
78. Which of the following tracts will MOST likely project from hippocampus to the hypothalamus?
A. Optic nerve
B. Fornix
C. Stria medullaris
...D. Medial forebrain bundle
77. Which of the following structures is derived from the metencephalon?
A. Thalamus
B. Midbrain
C. Medulla
...D. Pons
76. The thalamic nucleus to which the ascending sensory system from the face synapses is:
A. Ventralis posterior
B. Ventralis anterior
C. Ventralis lateralis
...D. Lateralis posterior
75. The blood supply to the visual-receiving cortex is predominantly from which of the following arteries?
A. Anterior cerebral
B. Posterior cerebral
C. Middle cerebral
...D. Superior cerebellar
74. The mesencephalic nucleus of the 5th cranial nerve receives propioceptive impulses from:
A. The extrinsic muscles of the eyeball
B. The muscles of mastication
C. The muscles of facial expression
...D. All of the above
73. The fornix connects the hippocampus with the:
A. Thalamus
B. Maxillary & habenular nuclei
C. Tegmentum
...D. Amygdala
72. The 1st sacral neural segment of spinal cord lies opposite:
A. Junction of T12 & L1 vertebrae
B. L5 vertebra
C. S1 vertebra
...D. S2 vertebra
71. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the midbrain?
A. It is developed from the prosencephalon
B. Both the cerebral cortex & deep cerebellar nuclei project to the red nucleus
C. Substantia nigra is found ventral to the basis pedunculi
...D. It contains the III, IV, and VI nerve nuclei
70. In an Argyl-Robertson pupil, there is MOST likely a lesion in the:
A. Visuosensory area of the cerebral cortex
B. Lateral geniculate body
C. Pre-tectal nucleus
...D. Superior colliculus
69. Lesions of the 1st thoracic segment of the spinal cord will MOST likely result in:
A. Paralysis of the small muscles of the hand
B. Contraction of the pupil
C. Loss of cutaneous sensation in the neck & chest down to the 2nd intercostal space
...D. A & B only
68. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the arachnoid mater?
A. Is derived from loose mesenchyme of sclerotomic origin surrounding the SC
B. Does not invest the origin of the spinal nerves
C. Invests the brain & dips into the sulci between the gyri
...D. Ends at L2 level
67. Which of the following nerves would MOST likely be compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. Median
B. Radial
C. Ulnar
...D. Median & Radial
66. The right atrium of the heart:
A. Is related medially to thoracic aorta
B. Is derived from the right horn of the sinus venosus & right common cardinal vein
C. Has the opening of the coronary sinus placed between the openings of the superior & inferior vena cava
D. On its septal wall presents the limbus fossae ovalis representing the free edge of the septum primum
65. In the condition known as Tetralogy of Fallot, there is:
A. Stenosis of the pulmonary artery
B. Overriding of the interventricular septum by the mouth of the aorta
C. Persistence of a patent interventricular foramen
...D. A & C only
64. Which of the following is the MOST accurate arrangement of structures of the roots of the right lung, from above downwards?
A. SLB. PA, RPB, LPV
B. SLB, RPB, LPV, PA
C. PA, SLB, LPV, RPB
...D. SLB, LPV, PA, RPB
63. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the internal intercostal muscles?
A. Are twelve in number
B. Are replaced anteriorly by the anterior intercostal membrane
C. Arise from the floor of the costal grooves & the corresponding costal cartilages
...D. Have the intercostal vessels running between it and the external intercostal muscles
62. In young children, tumors of the thymus can press upon the:
A. Trachea, esophagus, & large veins at the root of the neck
B. Trachea only
C. Right lung
...D. Pericardium
61. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the thoracic duct?
A. Receives lymphatics from all the intercostal spaces of both sides
B. Is related to the right edge of the esophagus in the superior mediastinum
C. Is crossed by the hemiazygous & the accessory hemia...zygous veins
D. Has alternate routes for the passage of lymph to the venous circulation
M60. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the ascending aorta?
A. Is about 2.5 cm long
B. Passes upwards & to the left to reach the level of the 2nd right costal cartilage
C. Is contained in a layer of serous pericardium which separates from that one enclosing ...the pulmonary trunk
D. Is related on its right side to the superior vena cava & the right atrium
59. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the pulmonary trunk?
A. Lies entirely within the fibrous pericardium
B. Its right branch has a smaller caliber than the left
C. Arises from the base of the left ventricle
D. Divides at the level of the 5th thoracic vertebra into right & left pulmonary
58. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the esophagus?
A. Is about 10 inches long
B. Pierces the diaphragm opposite the 10th thoracic vertebra
C. Ends at the level of the 11th thoracic vertebra
...D. All of the above
57. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the psoas major?
A. Is covered by fascia iliaca
B. Lies behind the diaphragm in the thorax
C. Is related to the lumbar plexus posteriorly
...D. Is pierced by the genitofemoral nerve
56. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the appendix?
A. Is larger in the child than in the adult
B. Is supplied by a branch of the right colic artery
C. Has no taenia coli
...D. Is not covered by peritoneum
55. The jejunum differs from the ileum in that it has:
A. More lymphatic tissue
B. Shorter vasa recta
C. More circular folds
...D. More arterial arcades
54. The posterior relations of the second part (descending part) of the duodenum would include which of the following?
A. Right renal vessels
B. Psoas major
C. Part of the inferior vena cava
...D. All of the above
53. The left suprarenal vein usually drains into the:
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Left renal vein
C. Inferior mesenteric vein
...D. Splenic vein
52. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the liver?
A. Is formed at the level of the 2nd lumbar vertebra
B. Is derived mainly from mesoderm
C. Its inferior border lies on the transpyloric plane
...D. Has no serous coat
51. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the portal vein?
A. Is formed at the level of the 2nd lumbar vertebra
B. Lies in front of the neck of the pancreas
C. Its left branch generally receives the cystic vein
...D. Is connected to the inferior vena cava by ligamentum venosum
50. The aorta ends at the:
A. Lower border of the 4th lumbar vertebra
B. Upper border of the 4th lumbar vertebra
C. Lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra
...D. Upper border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra
49. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the anus?
A. It is covered by peritoneum in the upper one-third
B. It is partly derived from ectoderm & endoderm
C. It is entirely innervated by the inferior rectal nerve
...D. Venous drainange is into the portal system only
48. All the muscles in the urogenital region are innervated by:
A. Branches from the 4th sacral nerve
B. Branches from the perineal division of the pudendal nerve
C. Branches from the obturator nerve
...D. Branches from the inferior rectal nerve
47. The internal spermatic fascia is derived from which of the following?
A. Internal oblique muscle
B. External oblique muscle
C. Cremasteric muscle
...D.Transversalis fascia
46. Which of the following is the MOST important ligament supporting the uterus?
A. Anterior
B. Broad
C. Round
...D. Transverse
45. The arteries supplying the prostate gland are derived from which of the following arteries?
A. Internal pudendal
B. Inferior vesical
C. Middle rectal
...D. All of the above
44. The gluteus maximus muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves?
A. Superior gluteal
B. Inferior gluteal
C. Obturator
...D. Femoral
43. Which of the following statements BEST describes the deltoid ligament?
A. Is quadrangular in shape
B. Has three sets of fibers
C. Is crossed by tendons of the Tibialis anterior and Flexor digitorum longus
...D. Is partially attached to the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus
42. If the superficial peroneal nerve is injured, which of the following muscles may be paralyzed?
A. Peroneus longus
B. Peroneus brevis
C. Peroneus tertius
...D. A & B only
41. Which of the following statements is TRUE about sciatic nerve?
A. Arises from the dorsal divisions of L4, L5, S1, S2, S3
B. Passes out of the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen
C. Passes posterior to the quadratus femoris muscle
...D. Gives off to the obturator nerve
40. The cutaneous innervation of the sole of the foot is derived from which of the following nerves?
A. Medial plantar
B. Lateral plantar
C. Posterior tibial
...D. All of the above
39. The unlocking movement of the knee joint in the early stages of flexion is brought about by the:
A. Plantaris muscle
B. Popliteus muscle
C. Anterior cruciate ligament
...D. Ligamentum patellae
38. Eversion of the foot is limited by tension in the:
A. Tibialis anterior muscle
B. Tibialis posterior muscle
C. Deltoid ligament
...D. All of the above
37. Which of the following statements BEST describes the patella?
A. Is the largest sesamoid bone in the body
B. Provides attachment for the hamstring muscles
C. Is essential for flexion to occur in the knee joint
...D. All of the above
36. Which of the following statements BEST describes the superior thyroid artery?
A. Usually arises from the internal carotid artery
B. Has medial to it the middle constrictor muscle of the pharynx
C. Anterior to it is the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
...D. Supplies the larynx
35. Which of the following statements BEST describes the thyroid gland?
A. Increases in size during menstruation & pregnancy
B. Lies opposite C2 to C5 vertwebrae
C. Drains chiefly into the external jugular vein
...D. Uniquely has no nerve supply
34. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the sublingual gland?
A. Laterally is related to the mandible below the mylohyoid line
B. Is immediat
ely below the anterior belly of the digastric muscle
C. Lies deep in the mucous membrane of the floor of the mouth
...D. Posteriorly is related to the parotid gland
33. Which of the following muscles will MOST unlikely assist in respiration by elevating the ribs?
A. Scalenus anterior
B. Scalenus medius
C. Scalenus posterior
...D. Longus colli
32. The common carotid artery:
A. On the left is crossed anteriorly by the thoracic duct
B. Has the phrenic nerve on its medial aspect
C. Terminates at the level of the upper border of the thyroid cartilage
...D. All of the above
31. Which of the following statements BEST describes the maxillary artery?
A. Arises from the internal carotid artery
B. Usually passes forward deep into the parotid gland
C. Supplies all the teeth of the upper jaw
...D. B & C only
30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the buccinator muscle?
A. Arises in part from the pterygomandibular raphe
B. Is inserted into the buccal mucous membrane
C. Is supplied by V-cranial nerve
...D. Shares its origin with the middle constrictor muscle
29. The superior laryngeal nerve:
A. Is sensory to the mucous membranes of the epiglottis & vallecula
B. Supplies motor innervation to all the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
C. Is sensory to the mucous membrane below the vocal folds
...D. Supplies motor innervation to the cricothyroid muscle
28. Which of the following statements BEST describes the external auditory meatus?
A. Has the medial third osseous & the lateral two-thirds cartilagenous
B. Is deficient of cartilage superiorly
C. Has ceruminous glands that extend up to the tympanic membrane
...D. Is, related, superiorly in its whole extent, to the middle cranbial fossa
27. Which of the following statements BEST describes the parathyroids?
A. Are developed from the 2nd & 3rd pharyngeal pouches
B. Are usually located at the level of the upper pole and middle of the thyroid
C. Blood supply from inferior thyroid and anastomoses between superio...r & inferior
thyroid arteries
D. Histologically consist of cords of identical cells
26. Which of the following is a valid description of the nasociliary nerve?
A. Enters the orbit superior to the levator palpebrae superioris
B. Provides sympathetic innervation to the dilator pupillae
C. Does not supply the dura mater
...D. Is the largest beranch of the ophthalmic nerve
25. If the right recurrent laryngeal nerve were cut, which of the following muscles would be left functioning?
A. Right lateral crico-arytenoid
B. Transverse arytenoid
C. Thyroarytenoid
...D. None of the above
24. Which of the following BEST describes the nasopharynx?
A. It lies above the level of the soft palate
B. Its cavity is usually obliterated
C. The pharyngeal opening of the auditory tube is on its posterior wall
...D. It is roofed over by the ethmoid and the splenoid bones
23. Which of the following structures is MOST likely derived from neural crest cells?
A. Parathyroid gland
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Adrenal medulla
...D. Neurohypophysis
22. In cell division, the phenomenon of "crossing-over" occurs in the:
A. Zygotene stage
B. Leptotene stage
C. Diplotene stage
...D. Pachytene stage
21. Which of the following BEST describes ossification?
A. Bone formation from membrane
B. Process of calcium deposition in tissue
C. Bone formation from cartilage
...D. A & C only
20. Which of the following is MOST inaccurate about aponeurosis?
A. It is a connnective tissues
B. It forms part of the nervous tissue
C. It is found at the ends of flat muscles
...D. It forms sheaths around some structures
19. Which of the following cells is MOST unlikely found in connective tissues?
A. Fibroblast
B. Myoblast
C. Mast cell
...D. Plasma cell
25. If the right recurrent laryngeal nerve were cut, which of the following muscles would be left functioning?
A. Right lateral crico-arytenoid
B. Transverse arytenoid
C. Thyroarytenoid
...D. None of the above
24. Which of the following BEST describes the nasopharynx?
A. It lies above the level of the soft palate
B. Its cavity is usually obliterated
C. The pharyngeal opening of the auditory tube is on its posterior wall
...D. It is roofed over by the ethmoid and the splenoid bones
23. Which of the following structures is MOST likely derived from neural crest cells?
A. Parathyroid gland
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Adrenal medulla
...D. Neurohypophysis
22. In cell division, the phenomenon of "crossing-over" occurs in the:
A. Zygotene stage
B. Leptotene stage
C. Diplotene stage
...D. Pachytene stage
21. Which of the following BEST describes ossification?
A. Bone formation from membrane
B. Process of calcium deposition in tissue
C. Bone formation from cartilage
...D. A & C only
20. Which of the following is MOST inaccurate about aponeurosis?
A. It is a connnective tissues
B. It forms part of the nervous tissue
C. It is found at the ends of flat muscles
...D. It forms sheaths around some structures
19. Which of the following cells is MOST unlikely found in connective tissues?
A. Fibroblast
B. Myoblast
C. Mast cell
...D. Plasma cell
18. When the terminal bronchioles are examined closely, they will show:
A. No cartilage
B. C-shaped cartilage
C. Broken-up cartilage
...D. O-shaped cartilage
17. The nutrient foramen in a long bone is directed:
A. Towards the growing end of the bone
B. Away from the growing end of the bone
C. Horizontally
...D. May vary in direction
16. The MOST common cartilage to ossify is which of the following?
A. Hyaline
B. Elastic
C. Fibrous
...D. Fibroelastic
15. The Haversian system is MOST likely present in which of the following?
A. Muscle cells
B. Cartilage
C. Compact bones
...D. Cancellous bones
14. Which of the following make up the layers of a mitral valve cusp?
A. Endocardium & myocardium
B. Endocardium & connective tissue
C. Endocardium, connective tissue, & epicardium
...D. Basement membrane only
13. Which of the following BEST describes goblet cells?
A. Degenerating cells
B. Secretory cells
C. Inclusion bodies
...D. Packaging organelles
12. Chondroitin sulfate is the characteristic feature of the matrix of which of the following tissue?
A. Bone
B. Muscle
C. Nerve
...D. Blood
11. Hyaline cartilage is MOST likely present in which of the following?
A. Epiglottis
B. Between epiphysis & diaphysis in a growing bone
C. Interveterbral disc
...D. Pinna of the ear
25. If the right recurrent laryngeal nerve were cut, which of the following muscles would be left functioning?
A. Right lateral crico-arytenoid
B. Transverse arytenoid
C. Thyroarytenoid
...D. None of the above
Letter D is the answer. The recurrent laryngeal nerve splits into anterior and posterior rami before supplying muscles in the voice box — it supplies all laryngeal muscles except for the cricothyroid, which is innervated by the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve.
24. Which of the following BEST describes the nasopharynx?
A. It lies above the level of the soft palate
B. Its cavity is usually obliterated
C. The pharyngeal opening of the auditory tube is on its posterior wall
...D. It is roofed over by the ethmoid and the splenoid bones
23. Which of the following structures is MOST likely derived from neural crest cells?
A. Parathyroid gland
B. Adrenal cortex
C. Adrenal medulla
...D. Neurohypophysis
22. In cell division, the phenomenon of "crossing-over" occurs in the:
A. Zygotene stage
B. Leptotene stage
C. Diplotene stage
...D. Pachytene stage
21. Which of the following BEST describes ossification?
A. Bone formation from membrane
B. Process of calcium deposition in tissue
C. Bone formation from cartilage
...D. A & C only
20. Which of the following is MOST inaccurate about aponeurosis?
A. It is a connnective tissues
B. It forms part of the nervous tissue
C. It is found at the ends of flat muscles
...D. It forms sheaths around some structures
19. Which of the following cells is MOST unlikely found in connective tissues?
A. Fibroblast
B. Myoblast
C. Mast cell
...D. Plasma cell
18. When the terminal bronchioles are examined closely, they will show:
A. No cartilage
B. C-shaped cartilage
C. Broken-up cartilage
...D. O-shaped cartilage
17. The nutrient foramen in a long bone is directed:
A. Towards the growing end of the bone
B. Away from the growing end of the bone
C. Horizontally
...D. May vary in direction
16. The MOST common cartilage to ossify is which of the following?
A. Hyaline
B. Elastic
C. Fibrous
...D. Fibroelastic
15. The Haversian system is MOST likely present in which of the following?
A. Muscle cells
B. Cartilage
C. Compact bones
...D. Cancellous bones
14. Which of the following make up the layers of a mitral valve cusp?
A. Endocardium & myocardium
B. Endocardium & connective tissue
C. Endocardium, connective tissue, & epicardium
...D. Basement membrane only
13. Which of the following BEST describes goblet cells?
A. Degenerating cells
B. Secretory cells
C. Inclusion bodies
...D. Packaging organelles
12. Chondroitin sulfate is the characteristic feature of the matrix of which of the following tissue?
A. Bone
B. Muscle
C. Nerve
...D. Blood
11. Hyaline cartilage is MOST likely present in which of the following?
A. Epiglottis
B. Between epiphysis & diaphysis in a growing bone
C. Interveterbral disc
...D. Pinna of the ear
10. Cardiac muscle is BEST classified as which of the following?
A. Striated voluntary muscle
B. Nonstriated voluntary muscle
C. Striated involuntary muscle
...D. Nonstriated involuntary muscle
9
. Which of the following makes up the basement membrane?
A. Collagen fibers
B. Elastic fibers
C. Reticular fibers
...D. Adipose tissue
8. A part of the human body that is exposed to constant friction will have:
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Goblet cells
...D. Simple columnar epithelium
7. Which of the BEST describes oligodendroglia?
A. Carry nerve impulses
B. Form myelin sheath within the CNS
C. Form myelin sheath around peripheral nerves
...D. Act as macrophages
6. Nissl bodies are found in the cytoplasm of which of the following?
A. Smooth muscle fibers
B. Axons
C. Cell body of neuron
...D. Nucleus of the neuron
5. A synovial membrane lines which of the following?
A. The articular cartilage
B. The articular cartilage + the capsule of the joint
C. The articular cartilage + the capsule of the joint + the ligaments of the joint
...D. The capsule of the joint only
4. Simple cuboidal epithelium forms which of the following?
A. Outer lining of the ovaries
B. Outer lining of the skin
C. Inner lining of the trachea
...D. Inner lining of the alveoli of the lung
3. Barr bodies are present in the cells of:
A. Normal males
B. Normal females
C. Both normal males & females
...D. Only in diseased individuals
A. 22 + XY
B. 23 pairs + 1 XY
C. 22 pairs + 1 XY
...D. 21 pairs + 1 XY
1. Which of the following BEST describes the maturation division of an ovum or sperm?
A. Mitotic division
B. Meiotic division
C. Binary fission
...D. Incomplete division
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